The latest Le’Veon Bell update involves the free agent running back considering a trio of AFC teams.
Multiple reports have indicated Bell has narrowed his focus on the Kansas City Chiefs, Buffalo Bills and Miami Dolphins. The 28-year-old back was released by the New York Jets earlier this week.
This afternoon, NFL Network’s Mike Garafolo provided further details on Bell’s decision-making process. According to Garafolo, the Chiefs believed they were going to have the three-time Pro Bowler locked in as soon as last night.
However, Bell is clearly opting to take his time, and hasn’t ruled out any of the three finalists.
“I learned a couple of years ago, don’t put a timeline on Le’Veon Bell. Because we kept talking about when he was coming back to the Steelers, and he never did,” Garafolo said.
From NFL Now on @nflnetwork: The #Chiefs thought they were moving toward closing out a deal with Le’Veon Bell last night, but that turned out to not be the case. They’re still in it, but they have company. pic.twitter.com/cxMdzfGzRv
— Mike Garafolo (@MikeGarafolo) October 15, 2020
Wherever Bell winds up signing, he’ll have a chance to exact revenge on his former team. The Jets’ next three games are against the Dolphins, Bills and Chiefs. New York also plays Miami again in late November.
In two games this season, Bell has rushed for 74 yards on 19 carries while adding three receptions for 39 yards.
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